Donnchadh Ó Laoghaire (Cork South-Central, Sinn Fein)
Link to this: Individually | In context

I will let Mr. Smyth in in a second. The defence would be relying on the same judgment, and the judgment makes no distinction between goods and services. It is very clear that such trade, as far as the court is concerned, is illegal under international law. The defence would be precisely the same. Why would it be good enough for one and not good enough for the other?