Catherine Murphy (Kildare North, Social Democrats)
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I will skip to a couple of other issues. I do not mean to be rude. Time is short. I appreciate the 1997 Act, but there have been high-profile cases. I refer to one case in particular that went to the Tax Appeals Commission but was still being negotiated with Revenue at the time. It was subsequently settled for substantially less than the original amount of money for which the firm was deemed liable. I will mention the name of the firm - it is Perrigo. The matter is in the news. It is not that the identity of the firm is not known. In the context of the amount that was settled on, the transaction that gave rise to the tax liability was €3.25 billion and the amount of tax that was ultimately settled on was €297 million, which is approximately 2%. Why would something be deemed intellectual property when a tax liability is issued but then subsequently negotiated as a different type of tax liability?