Ms Maria McDonald:

A significant number of them have. I cannot fully answer the Chairman's question but a significant number of the countries have. I know that with Brexit it may not be the best example but the UK has a victims' code in place. The UK had this in place even in advance of the victims' directive coming into force. The code does not, however, have legal force.

The issue which arises, while they have complied with the directive, is whether victims are going to be able to access those rights in reality if it does not have legal force. In those circumstances, does it really comply with the victims' directive?