Pearse Doherty (Donegal South West, Sinn Fein)
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Perhaps the outcome will be the same in both instances, if I understand what the Minister has said. The memorandum of understanding, were this amendment to be accepted, would not be on a statutory basis because it is not explained or spelled out. There is simply a legislative requirement to have a memorandum of understanding, but the memorandum itself would not be on a statutory basis. Would that not be the case?