Rónán Mullen (Independent)

Does that mean the Minister is giving a lower level of immunity to the whistleblower? If the Minister is saying the reason he is not including it in the criminal part is that it would be more difficult to prove what a person said was misleading, frivolous or vexatious, does it not follow that the Minister is exposing such a person to something that would be easier to prove in a civil context and that he is putting such a person at a greater disadvantage? Should we target whistleblowers only for that which they could be prosecuted under the criminal law? If the Minister exposes them to civil liability, is he exposing them to accusations that are easier to prove and is he, therefore, lessening the potential protection for them?