Charles Flanagan (Laois-Offaly, Fine Gael)

I only received this amendment the day before yesterday. It is quite a lengthy, detailed amendment and having read through it, I wondered what is the current position. I would have thought that such a provision was already in law and that this is normal practice in any event. The Minister may have confirmed that. Why is there a need for the amendment? What will be the net practical change in the proposal? I agree that the setting of the fees will still be by ministerial order, which is important. There has been great work undertaken by the Courts Service since its inception and it has succeeded in bringing about a great improvement to the system, in spite of its huge workload. Nevertheless, I urge that the setting of fees be maintained by the Minister and I do not think any change is proposed in this amendment or in this Bill.

The Minister may have dealt with my point already. Why is there a need for such an amendment if it was already normal practice? I cannot see why it should be amplified in statute law.

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