Eoin Ó Broin (Dublin Mid West, Sinn Fein) | Oireachtas source

I support the intention behind the amendment. I would like to understand how the text of the amendment relates to a previous commitment of around 50%. It seems to me that the wording of this section gives the local authority much more flexibility, which in my view is a good thing. So a local authority, in its development plan, on foot of a recommendation by a chief executive, if I read this right, could say the following. In this part of the functional area of the local authority we have a very high concentration of private rentals so we would like the balance shifted to owner-occupation or vice versa. Therefore, it is not about setting a percentage centrally but giving the local authority the flexibility to set those percentages and then for planning applications to be judged against that. Is my interpretation correct? Would a local authority be able to say in its housing plan, on foot of these, that there may be certain areas where there might be an even higher percentage of owner-occupation than 50% or a higher percentage of rental than 50%, if that is what is required? Have I interpreted this correctly, in that respect?