Ciarán Lynch (Cork South Central, Labour) | Oireachtas source

Is there any occasion where the LTV is 100% of the property value because the valuation is in excess of the real value? I ask this in the context of the setting of an LTV requirement by the Central Bank. Let us take a house that is being sold for €200,000. A potential buyer can borrow €200,00 based on his or her income.

Let us say that a person wants to purchase a house for €200,000 but cannot borrow that sum on the basis of his or her income. In such a case, would the loan-to-value requirement be worked around by revaluing the property at €220,000 so that it looks on paper as if the loan-to-value figure is 90%?